The semester is over, Christmas is almost over, and I finally have time to answer some questions. Thanks for your patience!
Haytham asks:
Please advise the meaning of each of the following sentences:
1. I did not see John or Peter.
2. I did not see John and Peter.
3. I did not see John nor Peter.
The first sentence implies that John or Peter should have been available...but I didn't see either one. For example: My friends John and Peter often spend each night studying in the library. But tonight I went to the library; I did not see John or Peter.
The second sentence would be a rare usage. It implies that they are a team or unit, always together. For example, I didn't see John and Peter in the tennis doubles match.
The third sentence is incorrect. "Nor" should have a negative expression before it: I saw neither John nor Peter.
I've always used "neither" with "nor" as you've said, but always thought I was somehow breaking the double negative rule.
This is the only way it seems to make sense though, so there it is.
Posted by: Ray G | December 25, 2006 at 08:29 PM
Although it's true that "not X and Y" implies that X and Y are a team, it's not rare. In fact, if you search a large corpus for "(neg) (verb) (noun) and/or (noun)", you'll find that 'and' is only about 10% more common than 'or'.
Posted by: Brett | December 26, 2006 at 10:19 AM
“The second sentence would be a rare usage.”
No. Not rare at all. But incorrect for complete negation.
For partial negation, it is usual, as in the following examples:
Did you see John and Peter?
No, I only saw Peter.
Did you bring beer and chips?
No, I only brought beer.
Do you sell women’s and men's clothes?
No, we sell only men's clothes.
Mr. Bird, do you have arms and legs?
Bird: No, I only have legs.
Mr. Snake, do you have arms and legs?
Snake: No, I don’t have arms and legs; in fact, I have neither.
Posted by: Gura Sumi | December 09, 2013 at 01:07 AM